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[Audio] 1. Which of the following lifestyle modifications is LEAST likely to prevent symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? A. Elevating the head of the bed to utilize gravity in reducing acid reflux. B. Maintaining an ideal body weight to reduce intra-abdominal pressure. C. Consuming peppermint tea after meals to soothe the gastrointestinal tract. D. Avoiding eating within 3 hours of bedtime to reduce nocturnal reflux. The correct Answer is. C. Consuming peppermint tea after meals to soothe the gastrointestinal tract. Peppermint can relax the lower esophageal sphincter, potentially worsening GERD symptoms..

[Audio] 2. A patient diagnosed with chronic gastritis is at an increased risk of developing a deficiency in which vitamin due to impaired production of intrinsic factor? A. Vitamin C. B. Vitamin B12. C. Vitamin K. D. Vitamin D. The correct answer is. B. Vitamin B12. Autoimmune gastritis can damage parietal cells, reducing intrinsic factor production, which is necessary for Vitamin B12 absorption..

[Audio] 3. Which of the following medications is LEAST likely to increase the risk of developing gastritis? A. Corticosteroids. B. NSAIDs. C. Aspirin. D. Acetaminophen. THE CORRECT Answer is: D. Acetaminophen. Aspirin, NSAIDs, and corticosteroids can irritate the stomach lining and increase the risk of gastritis, while acetaminophen typically does not..

[Audio] 4. A patient presents with black, tarry stools (melena). This finding is MOST indicative of bleeding in which location? A. Lower gastrointestinal tract. B. Distal colon. C. Upper gastrointestinal tract. D. Rectum. The correct Answer is: C. Upper gastrointestinal tract. Melena, or black, tarry stools, typically indicates bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract where blood has been digested..

[Audio] 5. After inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube, what is the MOST reliable initial method to confirm correct placement prior to administering medication or feeding? A. Observing the patient for coughing or respiratory distress. B. Auscultating over the epigastrium while injecting air. C. Aspirating gastric contents and checking the pH level. D. Obtaining an X-ray to visualize tube placement. The correct Answer is: D. Obtaining an X-ray to visualize tube placement. While aspirating gastric contents can provide some indication, X-ray imaging is considered the gold standard for confirming NG tube placement..

[Audio] 6. A patient is assessed for appendicitis. Upon palpation of the abdomen, the patient reports increased pain upon release of pressure in the right lower quadrant. Which of the following describes this clinical finding? A. Guarding. B. Rebound tenderness. C. Referred pain. D. Direct tenderness. The correct Answer is: B. Rebound tenderness. Rebound tenderness is a clinical sign where pain intensifies upon the sudden release of pressure during abdominal palpation, often indicating peritoneal inflammation..

[Audio] 7. Helicobacter pylori is associated with the development of which condition? A. Diverticulitis. B. Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD). C. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). D. Ulcerative colitis The correct Answer is: B. Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD). H. pylori is a major cause of PUD, which involves erosion of the stomach or duodenal lining..

[Audio] 8. A patient with chronic gastritis and reduced intrinsic factor is MOST likely to present with which type of anemia? A. Iron deficiency anemia. B. Aplastic anemia. C. Pernicious anemia. D. Hemolytic anemia. The correct Answer is: C. Pernicious anemia. A reduction in intrinsic factor impairs vitamin B12 absorption, leading to the development of pernicious anemia..

[Audio] 9. Which dietary modification is MOST likely to increase the risk of developing diverticulitis? A. Reducing the consumption of red meat. B. Consuming a diet high in fiber. C. Increasing intake of fruits and vegetables. D. Adopting a diet high in fats and low in fiber. The correct Answer is: D. Adopting a diet high in fats and low in fiber. A diet high in fats and low in fiber is associated with an increased risk of diverticulitis by potentially contributing to the development of diverticulosis..

[Audio] 10. A patient with a history of chronic NSAID use is MOST at risk for developing which of the following gastrointestinal conditions, according to the provided material? A. Ulcerative colitis. B. Diverticulitis. C. Celiac disease. D. Irritable bowel syndrome. The correct Answer is: B. Diverticulitis. The use of NSAIDs is cited as a risk factor for diverticulitis, suggesting that patients with a history of chronic NSAID use are more prone to developing this condition..

[Audio] 11. Which of the following physiological responses indicates the MOST immediate concern for a patient experiencing significant blood loss due to a gastrointestinal bleed? A. Bradypnea. B. Bradycardia. C. Hypertension. D. Hypotension. The correct Answer is: D. Hypotension. Hypotension is listed as a sign and symptom of hypovolemic shock, which is a primary concern in patients experiencing significant blood loss..

[Audio] 12. Which of the following nursing interventions is CONTRAINDICATED for a patient experiencing hypovolemic shock due to a GI bleed? A. Administering intravenous fluids. B. Administering oxygen therapy. C. Inserting an NG tube. D. Monitoring vital signs closely. The correct Answer is: C. Inserting an NG tube. The material explicitly advises against NG tube insertion in patients experiencing hypovolemic shock..

[Audio] 13. A patient with a significant GI bleed is exhibiting confusion, dizziness, and cold, clammy extremities. Which condition should the nurse suspect FIRST? A. Dehydration. B. Electrolyte imbalance. C. Hypovolemic shock. D. Anemia. The correct Answer is: C. Hypovolemic shock. Confusion, dizziness, and cold, clammy extremities are signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock, which is a primary concern with significant blood loss..

[Audio] 14. Why might chronic constipation contribute to the development of diverticulitis? A. It reduces inflammation of the colon lining. B. It may lead to increased pressure within the bowel. C. It decreases pressure within the bowel. D. It directly introduces bacteria into the colon. The correct Answer is: B. It may lead to increased pressure within the bowel. Chronic constipation may increase pressure within the bowel, predisposing individuals to the development of diverticula and potentially diverticulitis..

[Audio] 15. A patient experiencing tachycardia, tachypnea, and a weak, thready pulse following a significant GI bleed requires immediate intervention to address which potential complication? A. Hypovolemic shock. B. Electrolyte imbalance. C. Anemia. D. Dehydration. The correct Answer is: A. Hypovolemic shock. Tachycardia, tachypnea, and a weak, thready pulse are indicative of hypovolemic shock, necessitating prompt and appropriate medical intervention..

[Audio] 16. Which factor is LEAST likely to directly increase the risk of developing diverticulitis? A. High-fiber diet. B. Smoking. C. Advancing age. D. Sedentary lifestyle. The correct Answer is: A. High-fiber diet. A high-fiber diet is generally considered protective against diverticulitis, unlike advancing age, a sedentary lifestyle, and smoking, which are considered risk factors..

[Audio] 17. A patient with a GI bleed vomits. Which nursing intervention is most important to implement? A. Administering an antiemetic to prevent further vomiting. B. Providing the patient with clear fluids. C. Positioning the patient on their side. D. Elevating the head of the bed to a 45-degree angle. The correct Answer is: C. Positioning the patient on their side. Patients with GI bleeding are at risk for aspiration if they vomit, so the patient should be positioned on their side to prevent aspiration..

[Audio] 18. A patient is prescribed antibiotics for a UTI. What is the most important instruction regarding completing the medication course? A. Complete the full course of antibiotics, even if feeling better. B. Share the remaining antibiotics with family members if they develop similar symptoms. C. Stop taking the antibiotics if symptoms improve to prevent side effects. D. Take a double dose if a dose is missed to catch up. The correct Answer is: A. Complete the full course of antibiotics, even if feeling better. It is important to complete the full course of antibiotics, even if the patient starts feeling better. Stopping antibiotics early can lead to the infection not being fully treated, which can cause the infection to recur and may lead to antibiotic resistance..

[Audio] 19. A patient with a GI bleed is also on medication that increases bleeding risk. What education should the nurse provide? A. Increase the dose of the medication to counteract the bleeding. B. Discontinue the medication immediately and contact the healthcare provider. C. Continue the medication as prescribed and monitor for increased anxiety. D. Avoid alcohol consumption while taking the medication. The correct Answer is: D. Avoid alcohol consumption while taking the medication..

[Audio] 20. A patient with suspected appendicitis is awaiting surgery. Why are heat applications to the abdomen contraindicated? A. Heat can cause vasodilation and increase the risk of rupture. B. Heat can interfere with the surgical procedure. C. Heat can mask the symptoms of appendicitis. D. Heat can increase muscle spasms and pain. The correct Answer is: A. Heat can cause vasodilation and increase the risk of rupture. Heating pads, laxatives, and enemas should be avoided, as they can complicate or cause a rupture of the appendix. Instead pain management should be done as prescribed by the doctor..

[Audio] 21. When caring for a patient with a GI bleed, which assessment finding requires immediate intervention? A. Reports of mild abdominal discomfort. B. Occasional nausea and vomiting. C. A blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg. D. An increase in heart rate accompanied by a decrease in blood pressure. The correct Answer is: D. An increase in heart rate accompanied by a decrease in blood pressure. Severe GI bleeding will cause a decrease in blood pressure. Vitals signs that indicate declining status should be reported immediately..

[Audio] 22. Following an appendectomy, a patient reports abdominal pain. Which intervention should the post-operative nurse avoid? A. Applying a heating pad to the abdomen. B. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises. C. Assessing the surgical incision for signs of infection. D. Administering prescribed analgesics. The correct Answer is: A. Applying a heating pad to the abdomen. Applying heat can increase blood flow to the area in the body where the appendix was, increasing the likely hood of complications..

[Audio] 23. A patient is prescribed an antibiotic and reports diarrhea. What supplement might be prescribed? A. Vitamin D supplement. B. Iron supplement. C. Calcium supplement. D. Probiotic supplement. The correct Answer is: D. Probiotic supplement. Antibiotics may cause diarrhea as they can disrupt the normal flora of the bowel. A probiotic supplement may help restore the normal flora..

[Audio] 24. A patient is admitted with hematemesis and melena. Which lab values are most important to monitor? A. Serum electrolytes. B. Liver function tests. C. Coagulation studies. D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit. The correct Answer is: D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit. Blood loss leads to decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit..

[Audio] 25. A urinalysis of a patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is most likely to reveal the presence of which of the following? A. Decreased protein levels. B. Organisms or bacteria. C. Elevated glucose levels. D. Ketones. The correct Answer is: B. Organisms or bacteria. The presence of organisms or bacteria in a urinalysis strongly indicates a urinary tract infection..

[Audio] 26. Stress ulcers are a specific type of gastrointestinal issue most commonly found in what patient population? A. Patients with a history of NSAID use. B. Critically ill patients. C. Elderly patients with poor nutrition. D. Patients with anxiety disorders. The correct Answer is: B. Critically ill patients. Stress ulcers, also known as stress-induced gastritis, specifically occur in critically ill patients due to physiological stress..

[Audio] 27. An esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) is primarily used to visualize which parts of the digestive system? A. The appendix, ileum, and jejunum. B. The esophagus, stomach, and upper duodenum. C. The gallbladder, liver, and pancreas. D. The colon, rectum, and anus. The correct Answer is: B. The esophagus, stomach, and upper duodenum. An EGD allows direct visualization of the esophagus, stomach, and upper duodenum to detect abnormalities..

[Audio] 28. What is the most appropriate position for providing oral care to a semi-conscious patient to prevent aspiration? A. High-Fowler's. B. Supine. C. On their side. D. Prone. The correct Answer is: C. On their side. Placing a semi-conscious patient on their side during oral care allows fluids and secretions to drain, reducing the risk of aspiration..

[Audio] 29. A patient is diagnosed with diverticulitis. During the acute phase of treatment, which dietary modification is most appropriate? A. Avoiding nuts and seeds. B. Low-residue diet. C. Liquid diet. D. High-fiber diet. The correct Answer is: C. Liquid diet. During the initial phase of diverticulitis treatment, a liquid diet is generally recommended to allow the bowel to rest..

[Audio] 30. A patient with diverticulitis asks what dietary changes they can make to reduce future flare-ups once the acute phase has resolved. Which recommendation is most appropriate? A. Consume a high-fiber diet to prevent constipation. B. Increase intake of nuts and seeds to promote bowel regularity. C. Avoid fluids to minimize bowel distension. D. Maintain a low-fiber diet to reduce bowel movements. The correct Answer is: A. Consume a high-fiber diet to prevent constipation. After the acute phase, a high-fiber diet is recommended to prevent constipation and promote regular bowel movements, reducing pressure in the colon..

[Audio] 31. Which lifestyle modification is least likely to be included in patient education for someone with diverticulitis? A. Regular physical activity. B. Smoking cessation. C. Maintaining a healthy weight. D. Limiting alcohol consumption. The correct Answer is: D. Limiting alcohol consumption. While it's important to avoid irritating foods like alcohol and spicy items, limiting alcohol consumption is the least emphasized lifestyle factor..

[Audio] 32. A patient with a peptic ulcer is experiencing anemia. Which set of lab findings would most likely correlate with this condition? A. Normal Hemoglobin, Increased Hematocrit. B. Increased Hemoglobin, Normal Hematocrit C. Bleeding from peptic ulcers leads to a decrease in both hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. D. Decreased Hemoglobin and Hematocrit. E. Increased Hemoglobin and Hematocrit. The correct Answer is: D. Decreased Hemoglobin and Hematocrit. Bleeding from peptic ulcers results in lower-than-normal hemoglobin and hematocrit levels..

[Audio] 33. A patient post-abdominal surgery reports increased abdominal pain, rigidity, and fever. Which complication should the nurse suspect and immediately assess for? A. Peritonitis. B. Stress incontinence. C. Fecal impaction. D. Atelectasis. The correct Answer is: D. Peritonitis. Peritonitis is a serious complication following abdominal surgery, indicated by increased abdominal pain, rigidity, and fever, necessitating immediate assessment and intervention..

[Audio] 34. A post-operative patient is reluctant to cough due to incisional pain. What nursing intervention is most appropriate to promote respiratory function? A. Administer a strong cough suppressant to minimize discomfort. B. Encourage deep breathing exercises without coughing to avoid pain. C. Postpone respiratory exercises until the patient reports being pain-free. D. Assist the patient with splinting the abdomen while coughing. The correct Answer is: D. Assist the patient with splinting the abdomen while coughing. Splinting the abdomen provides support and reduces pain during coughing, facilitating effective secretion clearance and prevention of respiratory complications..

[Audio] 35. A patient is being prepared for surgery. What is the primary purpose of administering IV fluids pre-operatively? A. To maintain fluid status in preparation for surgery. B. To facilitate the administration of analgesics. C. To prevent the formation of kidney stones. D. To treat potential post-operative infections. The correct Answer is: A. To maintain fluid status in preparation for surgery. Administering IV fluids pre-operatively helps ensure adequate hydration and hemodynamic stability, preparing the patient for the physiological stresses of surgery..

[Audio] 36. A patient reports involuntary urine loss when laughing or sneezing. Which type of incontinence is the patient most likely experiencing? A. Functional incontinence. B. Overflow incontinence. C. Stress incontinence. D. Urge incontinence. The correct Answer is: C. Stress incontinence. Stress incontinence is characterized by involuntary urine loss due to increased intra-abdominal pressure from activities like coughing, laughing, or sneezing..

[Audio] 37. A patient with a fecal impaction is likely to exhibit which of the following signs and symptoms? A. Absence of abdominal pain or distention. B. Continuous, formed stool elimination. C. Oozing of liquid stool and rectal pressure. D. Frequent, normal bowel movements. The correct Answer is: C. Oozing of liquid stool and rectal pressure. Fecal impaction can cause liquid stool to bypass the impacted mass, leading to incontinence and rectal pressure due to the blockage..

[Audio] 38. Several days post-op, a patient's temperature is 101.5°F (38.6°C), and the surgical site shows redness with purulent drainage. Which intervention is the priority? A. Increasing oral fluid intake to promote hydration. B. Administering prescribed analgesics for pain. C. Contacting the healthcare provider to report signs of infection. D. Encouraging ambulation to improve circulation. The correct Answer is: C. Contacting the healthcare provider to report signs of infection. Signs of infection such as fever and purulent drainage from the surgical site require immediate notification of the healthcare provider for appropriate intervention like antibiotics..

[Audio] 39. A patient is ordered to have a kidneys-ureter-bladder (KUB) x-ray. What is the primary purpose of this diagnostic test? A. To measure the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). B. To identify specific microorganisms in the urine. C. To assess bladder function during voiding. D. To detect kidney stones, tumors, or kidney swelling. The correct Answer is: D. To detect kidney stones, tumors, or kidney swelling. A KUB x-ray is primarily used to visualize the size, shape, and position of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder, helping to identify abnormalities such as stones or tumors..

[Audio] 40. Following abdominal surgery, a nurse is monitoring a patient's fluid balance. Which assessment finding would warrant immediate intervention? A. Urine output of 50 ml/hour. B. Stable electrolyte levels within normal limits. C. Consistent intake and output volumes. D. Decreased urine output with signs of dehydration. The correct Answer is: Decreased urine output with signs of dehydration. (D) Decreased urine output alongside signs of dehydration may indicate hypovolemia or kidney dysfunction, requiring prompt intervention to restore fluid balance and prevent complications.