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Teleological vs deontological theories: Maximising (or at least promoting) a goal vs acting according to moral laws and classic examples of teleological theories such as Utilitarianism promotes the maximisation of pleasure. The other theory is conforming to set and absolute moral laws and principles Moral laws are absolute: they can never legitimately be broken; one either conforms to them or not No degrees of success in moral action Analogy to positive law: does this action conform to or break this regulation? (Note: two disanalogies)

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For Kant, moral laws (‘duties’) are grounded in moral principles  Moral principles are  a priori Why? Morality is a matter of moral necessity – how we unconditionally ought to act Empirical facts – e.g. what individuals desire or what makes them happy – reflect only how we conditionally happen to be and to act Only  a priori  truths can embody practically necessary (non-contingent) principles

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Kant: morality has  a priori  foundations (1)

Utilitarianism’s ‘greatest happiness’ principle requires us to know what people desire, what makes them happy In Kant’s language, it thereby rests on people’s  inclinations But what people are inclined to want or desire is a changing, contingent matter It thereby renders morality itself  changing and insecure : no category of action is necessarily and unconditionally good or bad We know  a priori  that morality is not like that

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Kant: morality has  a priori  foundations (2)

If moral action aims at desire-satisfaction or attaining the end of happiness – my own or others’ – it has a purpose that lies beyond itself It follows that I do not view the action as having  unconditional worth  in itself As Kant puts it: moral worth ‘cannot lie anywhere but in the  principle of the will  without regard to the ends which can be attained by the action’ Once again, we know  a priori  that moral worth is like this: it is unconditional

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Kant: morality has  a priori  foundations (3)

If my motivation to  Φ  is founded on contingent, empirical facts – e.g. what I happen to desire, what helps me avoid punishment – I will be disinclined to act when I no longer desire to  Φ , or when  Φ  no longer helps me avoid punishment But we know  a priori  that  moral motivation  is not like this. It is ‘pure’, says Kant: I must be motivated by and only by what is moral  per se Only the moral law deserves  respect ; inclinations do not. Respect for the moral law is an essential mark of practical  rationality  – for only the moral law gives me proper reason to act

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As we said, moral laws are derived from moral principles; only if a law conforms to moral principles is it a moral law Why? Because moral principles are  a priori Their  a priori  form guarantees that any moral law derived from them will not be based on mere desire or inclination Kant argues that there are two main normative principles, which have a  categorical  and  imperative  form. What does this mean?

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This depends on what I, personally, or others, want to achieve: that is, it is  contingent  on particular desires Examples of laws that conform to the hypothetical imperative: IF I want to become an athlete, I must train at least three hours a day; IF I want to bake this cake, I must buy a ½ kilo of butter

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This does not depend on what I, personally, or others, want to achieve: it binds my action  necessarily  and unconditionally Examples of moral laws that conform to the categorical imperative:  You must pay your taxes You must keep your promises You must never cheat on a test

Deontology 1

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